Homework problem 5. (). Show that if
then in fact
.
Question. If is Dedekind-finite but
is Dedekind-infinite, does it follow that there is an infinite Dedekind-finite set
such that
?
From now on, until we cover determinacy, we assume the axiom of choice unless stated otherwise.
1. Preliminaries.
We use to denote cardinals (initial ordinals), usually infinite. As usual,
is the cardinality of the disjoint union of two sets, one of size
, and one of size
,
In fact, we can take
where the latter
denotes ordinal addition.
The advantage of doing this is that we can generalize it to infinite sums.
Definition. Let be an ordinal and
a sequence of ordinals. Then
is the ordinal resulting from concatenating the
in the given order; formally, we consider the disjoint union
and well-order it by setting
iff
or else
and
It is straightforward to check that this is indeed a well-ordering.
Definition. Let be a set and let
be an
-indexed family of cardinals. Then
where
is a bijection, and the later sum is the infinitary addition of ordinals defined above.
One easily checks that this is well-defined (i.e., the same number is obtained for all bijections ), and coincides with the cardinality of the disjoint union of the
.
Remark. Without choice, there is no reasonable way of defining , even if we make the sum dependent on the specific index set
. For example, it is consistent to have an uncountable set that is the countable union of sets of size two. The issue is that even if there are bijections between sets
and
for each
it is not necessarily the case that there is a function that to each
assigns some such bijection, and it is indeed possible that there is no bijection between the resulting sets
and
Homework problem 6. It is consistent with that
is a countable union of countable sets. It is also consistent with
that there are infinite Dedekind-finite subsets of
. However, show that these two statements cannot hold simultaneously.
The first result shows that cardinal addition trivializes in the presence of choice.
Fact 1. Let be a nonempty set. If the
are nonzero, and either
or
is infinite, then
In particular,
if at least one of
is infinite.
Proof. First we argue the case for two cardinals: Let Then
where we use the fact that there is an injection
whenever at least one of
is infinite, and the fact that
and
have the same size, for any infinite ordinal
, as shown on lecture 3, lemma in section 6.
Remark. holds in the absence of choice if both
are at least two. It fails in the generality above, since if
is infinite and Dedekind-finite,
The result is now easy: Clearly, and
for any
. Also, if
then
. The result follows from the above and the Schröder-Bernstein theorem.
Unlike addition, multiplication is significantly more difficult.
Definition. Let be a set and let
be an
-indexed family of cardinals. Then
where the latter
denotes the product of the sets
, the set of all (choice) functions
such that for all
,
Clearly, a product is zero is one of its factors is zero, and a finite product has the size of the Cartesian product of the sets involved.
One easily checks that if for all
, then
Remark. Just as with addition, without choice there is no reasonable way of defining , even if we make the product dependent on the specific index set
. For example, it is consistent to have a countable collection of sets of size two whose product is not in bijection with the product of countably many copies of
Definition. , where
denotes the set of functions from
to
, so
Also,
denotes the product of
and
During the proof of Fact 1 we showed:
Fact 2. if at least one of
is infinite, and neither is zero.
From choice it follows that a product of nonempty sets is nonempty. In fact, it tends to be a rather large object. Before we present quantitative evidence of this statement, one more definition is in order. This notion is central to set theoretic combinatorics.
Definition. If is a linearly ordered set, a subset
is cofinal in
iff
Obviously, this notion coincides with the notion of an unbounded subset if has no largest element. If
has a largest element, a subset of
is cofinal iff it contains this largest element.
Definition. A map into a linear order is cofinal iff its range is cofinal. The cofinality
of
is the smallest ordinal
such that there is a cofinal map
.
Lemma 3.
,
, and
is an infinite cardinal for any limit ordinal
.
- Any cofinal subset of a linearly ordered set
contains a cofinal subset of size
.
Proof. In item 1, only that is an infinite cardinal for
limit needs to be argued. But if there is a cofinal map
and
then there is a cofinal map
It follows that
is a cardinal. It is obviously infinite, since
is a limit ordinal and therefore no map from a finite set into
will be cofinal.
Item 2 is shown similarly: If and there is a cofinal map
, then there is a cofinal map
contradicting the definition of
.
To prove item 3, let be a cofinal subset of the linearly ordered set
and let
be a cofinal subset of
of smallest cardinality. By transfinite recursion, define a strictly increasing sequence
of elements of
The construction stops once the range of the sequence is cofinal in
Let
, and select a cofinal subsequence of
of length
. Then this sequence witnesses that
By minimality of
we must necessarily have
Now we argue that Letting
be the range of a cofinal map
, the argument above with
in place of
shows that we can assume that
is is strictly increasing. The situation is now this: We have two maps
and
both strictly increasing and cofinal. Also,
from item 2. By transfinite induction define subsequences of
and
as follows: Given
subsequence of
and
subsequence of
if neither is cofinal, define
to be the least element in the range of
that is an upper bound for all the
and
. Now define
as the least member of the range of
with
The construction stops when the sequences so built are cofinal in
If has a largest element, then
is a singleton,
, and also
, so we may assume that this is not the case. It follows that the construction must stop at a limit ordinal
. But then
witnesses that
(by definition of
), so
Similarly,
is cofinal in
and
so
by definition of
(or directly, from the sequence one easily sees that
and there is a cofinal map
so
).
We have shown that This completes the proof.
Corollary 4. There is a strictly increasing cofinal map
Definition. An infinite cardinal is regular iff
. An infinite limit ordinal
is singular iff
The following is immediate from Fact 1:
Corollary 5. for all
Proof. If and
then
and all the
for
have size at most
But then
and
, by Fact 1. It follows that
is bounded in
Remark. That is regular does not require choice. Similarly,
has cofinality
and choice is not needed to establish this. On the other hand, Gitik showed that it is consistent with
that every uncountable initial ordinal has cofinality
If , then
is the countable union of countable sets, since if
is cofinal, then
and each
is a countable ordinal. On the other hand, if
is a countable set of ordinals, then its order type is a countable ordinal, and it follows that any countable union of countable sets of ordinals has size at most
This is a curious situation, in that it is consistent that
, and therefore there are countable unions of countable unions of countable sets that are not countable unions of countable sets, etc.
Homework problem 7. ().
- Assume that
is the countable union of countable sets. Show that
.
- Assume that every countable union of countable sets is also a countable union of finite sets. Show that
is regular.
Question. In , if every countable union of countable sets is also a countable union of finite sets, does it follow that every countable union of countable sets is countable?
Lemma 6. A cardinal is regular if and only if it cannot be written as a union of fewer than
many sets, each of size less than
.
Proof. If the right hand side holds, no map with
can be cofinal, so
is regular. Assume now that
where
and
for each
Without loss,
is an infinite cardinal, and it is least for which such a decomposition of
is possible. Let
and define a function
by
where sums denote ordinal addition. That the range of
is indeed in
follows from our assumption on the minimality of
Notice that the ordinal
has size
, as the decomposition
provides us with a straightforward bijection between
and
It follows that in fact
i.e.,
is cofinal and therefore
is singular.
We are ready to prove the first significant result.
Theorem 7. (König). Assume that for all
. Then
Notice that is possible. For example, let
and let each
be 1 and each
be 2. Then both sums equal
Proof. First we show that the inequality holds, and then we argue that it is strict. For the first part, we simply need to exhibit an injection from into the collection of functions
Simply assign to each
the function that is zero in each coordinate except the
-th one, where it takes the value
Note that since
, then indeed
and the function is well defined. Clearly, from the function we can recover
so the assignment is injective.
Now consider an arbitrary map and we need to exhibit a function not in its range. For this, notice that the assignment
maps
into
and therefore there is some ordinal
not in its range. The function
so defined is not in the range of
since
for any
and any
Note that at the heart of the proof just given there is again a diagonal argument.
[…] -Cardinal arithmetic (2) At the end of last lecture, we showed Theorem 7, König’s lemma, stating that if for all then We begin by looking at […]
[…] It is easy to solve negatively the question immediately following Homework problem 5 on lecture II.1. I asked whether if is Dedekind-finite but is Dedekind-infinite, then it followed that there is […]
[…] Given an infinite cardinal let be the largest cardinal that can be represented as a union of many sets of size Hence, is either or and under choice it coincides with (The case was briefly discussed before Homework problem 7 in lecture II.1.) […]
[…] Given an infinite cardinal let be the largest cardinal that can be represented as a union of many sets of size Hence, is either or and under choice it coincides with (The case was briefly discussed before Homework problem 7 in lecture II.1.) […]
[…] the end of last lecture, we showed Theorem 7, König’s lemma, stating that if for all then We begin by looking at […]
[…] is easy to solve negatively the question immediately following Homework problem 5 on lecture II.1. I asked whether if is Dedekind-finite but is Dedekind-infinite, then it followed that there is […]